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Essorant
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since 2002-08-10
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Regina, Saskatchewan; Canada

0 posted 2007-06-09 12:51 PM


Does anyone know exactly whence the notion of "negative + negative = positive" came in respect to language?  

Isn't this a mathematical concept somewhat forced onto the language world.  In other words, demanding words to act like math?



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Balladeer
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1 posted 2007-06-09 02:28 PM


Interesting question. I didn't know that it WAS a set rule of language.

If I say, I CAN'T NOT EAT FOR A WEEK, i'm using two negatives but it doesn't mean I CAN eat for a week. It means I can't go a week without eating, therefore the CAN'T NOT does not equate to CAN.

In other cases it's simply a question of applied logic. YOU SHOULDN'T NOT EAT means you should for the simple logical reason that the second negative reverses the first. I don't see it as a demand but rather as an appilcation of natural reasoning.

Not A Poet
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since 1999-11-03
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Oklahoma, USA
2 posted 2007-06-09 02:43 PM


Not only does it not work, as pointed out by Balladeer, but my recollection from school is that double negatives are to be avoided, universally.

Oh, BTW, the world of logical mathematics would never attempt to impose any kind of logic on the totally illogical world of language, especially English.

Balladeer
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3 posted 2007-06-09 03:39 PM


Unless you're Mick Jagger, Pete....but, even then, you can't get no satisfaction.
oceanvu2
Senior Member
since 2007-02-24
Posts 1066
Santa Monica, California, USA
4 posted 2007-06-09 07:26 PM


RE: "Oh, BTW, the world of logical mathematics would never attempt to impose any kind of logic on the totally illogical world of language, especially English."

Isn't this one of the major elements of AI research, creating algorithms that allow a machine to respond to language with language?

Considering the following little tautology, I can see why this might take some time:

"Time flies like an arrow.
Fruit flies like bananas.

Just a little example of why ESL students go bonkers about the middle of the second semester.

And no, I'm not a fan of double negatives.  They are often clunky.

Best, Jim

Essorant
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since 2002-08-10
Posts 4769
Regina, Saskatchewan; Canada
5 posted 2007-06-09 08:16 PM


But originally and for the majority of English's evolution, in Old English and Middle English, and somewhat into Modern English, it was not at all thought  that another negative reverses the first in a saying such as "can't get no satisfaction" but rather that the other further emphasized the negativeness, and that is how such multiple negatives were used in those kind of sayings.  There was no basis in the former stages and tradition of the language itself to suggest otherwise for the English language, for the language widely accepted double negatives as normal and logical, as another negative further emphasizing negativeness, just as many, perhaps even most other languages do.  So what became different in our stages of the language to make them no longer seem "emphatic" but instead seem "reversing", and now in "reversing" make the "emphatic" ones seem "illogical"?  


Essorant
Member Elite
since 2002-08-10
Posts 4769
Regina, Saskatchewan; Canada
6 posted 2007-06-29 09:38 PM


Here is a saying about Arthur from Laamon's Brut

Ne isæh næver na man selere cniht nenne þene him wes Arður

"Not saw never no man better knight none than was Arthur"


ilsm
Member
since 2008-04-13
Posts 61
UK
7 posted 2008-04-26 07:44 PM


I believe double negatives were in frequent use in Mediaeval English as a result of the influnce of the Normans - see new thread entitled "Negatives".

I also think double negatives are frequently used (in British English at least) for emphasis: "I ain't never going back!"  No-one would ever expect Arnie to say that, would they?

And I thak Baladeer for his explanation of why double negatives can convey an entirely different meaning from the simple opposite of what is stated.

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