Statesboro, GA, USA
I think the connection would need to be established, textually, before it is assumed. I think the connection is sometimes made since Mary is often portrayed (in later theologies) in a light that is markedly reminiscent of Pagan stories (divine mother, father, son) I simply think this is a regressive addendum. The connection is not to be found in the earliest Christian writings, or the Jewish scriptures.
a recognition that long before God was conceived of as Masculine in the Judeo-Christian tradition, Woman (through her fecundity?) was the Goddess and source of all things?
Just for the record, the Judeo-Christian "God" is transencdent of gender, though has revealed himself in masculine terms. Evidence of this is when Adam and Eve are said to be created in God's image, male and female. There are other poetic descriptions of God in the prophets which describe him like a "Mother", and other hints at gender transcendence.
But as to your question about a "godess" who was the source of all things ... The Hebrew God was a unique and transcendent monotheism among the ancients. The transencent concept of "source for all things" was only rarely hinted at in other traditions, "gods" usually being superhuman forces or personalities within the world, not over and above it. (though immanence was also an aspect of the Judeo-Christian theology, in addition to transcendence- culminating in the incarnation of Christ) The closest thing to YHWH in ancient times was probably the Egyptian Atum, where he declared that all of Egypt was to worship one supreme God. I'm not aware of any godess who was cast in that light, though Karen may correct me here.
My usual view on the subject is that Judeo-Christian monotheism was a literal revelation from Heaven, while Pagan conceptions of God brushed with with many truths, and skirted very closely to (in an anticipatory kind of way) what God would later reveal through the Jews. But as far as gender goes, that is neither here nor there. Interesting conversation ...